For the question on the sf86 that asks if you have purchased/sold/etc. drugs “for your own intended profit or that of another?”, would I answer “yes” if I had purchased marijuana but the intent wasn’t to make a profit for anyone, but rather just to have marijuana for use? I want to answer this question honestly, but the wording has me genuinely confused. Any help would be appreciated. Thank you!
My memory is a little hazy on the 86 but I believe that question is basically asking if you ever trafficked or dealt drugs. I am fairly certain that there is another question pertaining to actual use of drugs that you would say yes to.
The portion asking if you touched, smelled, witnessed, thought of, drew a picture, heard the name, knew a person named Mary or Jane…is quite the cover all. Had one applicant claim he bought and sold MJ, not for profit, but for a friend’s mom with a terminal illness. I looked into possible mitigation, being very close to the friend’s mom, watching her suffer, too much to bear, unlikely to repeat, one of…but he made clear he wasn’t close to either. He changed the story to “I don’t think I made a profit, or much anyways.” And we were through. Be up front and honest. If you bought and sold for personal use, say so. If you flipped a profit on occasion with the intent of doing so to buy other “candy,” it is a different type of buying and selling. If just buying to smoke and not share…rude…but somewhat less a category. There is a fine line with the “Intent to distribute” aspect of drug law.
It sounds, to me, like you bought grass, skimmed some off for personal use and sold the rest for what you paid for the total.
You sold grass for a profit. Your profit was grass, not money, but profit none the less.
Answer the question honestly. You may not get your clearance (but you may) but you will not have to face a government lawyer in a few years when/if the truth comes out. This is a pretty minor issue if we are talking about your college years and you no longer associate with those who you bought and sold from. If you are still rooming with the buyer or, worse yet ,the seller, you will have serious problems.
I never sold for a profit. It isn’t the distribute part that I was concerned about, it was the “purchase” part. Because if we’re being technical, the guy I purchased it form made a profit(probably). That was where I was confused. Either way, I appreciate this insight.
Understood. I never flipped a profit, but the wording just confused me. Either way, I will be fully honest, and let the investigator and/or adjudicator decide.
Nobody cares if the guy you bought from made a profit. They want to know if you were dealing or if you were involved as dealing. It looks, to me, like you are clear to answer “No” on that one.
I’ve seen one purchase or one sale considered dealing. If you bought or sold…I lean towards reporting it. But I work in a polygraph world where one must not attempt word-smithing an answer. How much time has passed, do you associate with those people anymore…plenty reasons it can be mitigated, age and distance from that age or the biggest.
You want to answer Yes, you didn’t profit but your dealer did. If you sold it too, then you both profited. It’s basically a catch all for purchase or selling of drugs as if “for that of another” wasn’t there I don’t think if purchased for personal use you would have to answer yes as long as you did not sell it for a profit